1.2.4.2 Jesus said "I am" so he must be
God
Once again, the claim in John 8:56-59 "before Abraham
was born, I am" is not the same as "worship me!" The
fact that Jesus (pbuh) was present before Abraham (pbuh) is
not the same as him saying "worship me!" What then would we
say about Solomon (pbuh) (Proverbs 8:22-31) and Melchizedec
(Hebrews 7:3), who were supposedly present not only before
Abraham (pbuh), but also before all of creation? What about
the many others who were either anointed, consecrated or
made holy, before their births. (see Ps.89:20, Is. 45:1,
61:1, 1 Sam. 24:6, and Jer.1:5)?
With regard to your comparison of "I am" in the
verse of Exodus 3:14 with that of John 8:59, please note
that in John 9:9, a beggar who was healed by prophet Jesus
used these exact same words used by Jesus ("I am") to
refer to himself. We read
"Some said, This is he (the beggar): others
[said], He is like him: [but] he said, I am
[he]."
John 9:9.
Here we have a very clear statement from the beggar that
he was "implying" that he too was God Almighty. Is this not
how the "translators" have chosen to translate and
"interpret" such verses?. Please note that the word "he" was
not uttered by this beggar. What he actually said was "I
am." He used the exact same words that
Jesus used. Word for word. Does this now make this
beggar too the "incarnation" of God? Also notice that when
the Jews asked this beggar about the identity of the one who
healed him (Jesus) he replied
"And he said, 'He is a prophet.'"
John 9:17
Further, please notice how the "translators" chose to add
the word "he" after the beggar's statement, but they did not
chose to do so when Jesus said the exact same words.
Do you see how we have once again been reduced to
implication?. Notice how since Jesus never once says "I am
God!" or "Worship me!" that our own desire for him to
actually say that he is God is making us "interpret" every
innocent statement he makes to be equivalent to "I am
God!"?
Just because the English translation of these verses is
performed such that they become the same English words does
not mean that the original words are the same. The
first is the GREEK word eimi {i-mee'}, while the second is
the HEBREW word hayah {haw-yaw}. While both can be
translated into English to mean the same thing, they are in
actuality two distinctly different words.
The exact same Greek word (eimi {i-mee'}) is
translated as "I" in Matthew 26:22:
"And they [the disciples] were exceeding
sorrowful, and began every one of them to say unto him,
Lord, is it I?"
However, if we want to translate this word as "I am" when
Jesus says it then we need to be honest and consistent and
translate it the exact same way when the
disciples say it too. In such a case, Matthew 26:22 would be
translated as follows:
"And they [the disciples] were exceeding
sorrowful, and began every one of them to say unto him,
Lord, is it I am?"
So, if we were to follow these translator's chosen
"translation" techniques, shall we now claim that the
disciples of Jesus too are God? Here we have them saying so
very clearly. We have them asking Jesus in black and white
"Are we God?." Is this not what they were "implying?."
Should the inspiration of God be reduced to our
"implications"?
When the translators have not allowed their preconceived
doctrines to color their translation the result has been
such faithful translations of John 8:58 as the
following:
"'Truly, truly I tell you,' said Jesus, 'I have
existed before Abraham was born'"
The Holy Bible Containing the Old and New Testaments, Dr.
James Moffatt, John 8:58
and "Jesus said to them, 'I tell you, I existed before
Abraham was born'"
The Complete Bible, an American Translation, by Edgar
Goodspeed and J. M. Powis Smith, John 8:58
In Exodus 3:4, we read that prophet Moses used this
exact same term to refer to himself, however,
now strangely enough, no one has ever tried to claim that
Moses is God or that he was mimicking the words of God found
ten verses later in the same book of Exodus. We read:
"And when the LORD saw that he turned aside to see,
God called unto him out of the midst of the bush, and said,
Moses, Moses. And he said, Here I am."
Exodus 3:4
Notice how people are driven in a chosen direction of
faith through selective translation? Also remember that
Jesus (pbuh) did not speak GREEK. If only the church had not
felt it necessary to burn all of the original Hebrew
manuscripts of the Bible.
Is it so hard to bring us one clear verse like the above
verse of Isaiah 66:23 wherein Jesus (pbuh) also says
"worship me!"? Why must we infer? If Jesus is God or the Son
of God then this is his right. The Bible
should be overflowing with verses where Jesus
explicitly commands his followers to worship him,
where God explicitly commands mankind to worship his
son, where God explicitly threatens those who do not
worship His son with brimstone and hellfire, and so forth.
The Bible is overflowing with verses like this from God
about Himself, and from Jesus (pbuh) about
God, but there are none from Jesus (pbuh) about
himself. Why is it necessary:
- For God Almighty to explicitly command us to
worship Him, and
- for Jesus to explicitly command us to worship
"the Father."
while it is not necessary:
- For Jesus (pbuh) to explicitly command us to
worship him, or
- for God to explicitly command us to worship
"the Son"?
Is this not a fair request?
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